2025-21 FRANCE

(Just like Britain when arguing about Brexit), France is now arguing about governance... and in both settings, it seems, there (was) is a majority against every proposal. So why (did) do (the Brits and) especially the French use the 2,500-year-old binary voting, the most inaccurate voting measure of collective opinion ever invented? In other words, why do they ignore the work of their compatriots, M Jean-Charles de Borda et Le Marquis de Condorcet who in l'Académie des Sciences, just over 250 years ago, in 1770 and 1785, devised two brilliant preferential procedures: the Modified Borda Count MBC (as it is now called) or Borda preferendum, and the Condorcet rule, both of which are very accurate?
