When a single genetic mutation first let ancient Europeans drink milk, it set the stage for a continental upheaval.
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Curry, A. Archaeology: The milk revolution. Nature 500, 20–22 (2013). https://doi.org/10.1038/500020a
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DOI: https://doi.org/10.1038/500020a
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ExplorerMan
I think an equally interesting question that may shed some light on why lactose tolerance arose when and how it did is why didn't it arise MUCH SOONER in our evolution, since it is opens up a very nutritious food source?
I suspect the answer is so that in times of hunger, if the adult population can't drink milk, a mother's' milk would only by consumed by a child, therefore providing protection from very hungry adults. Since this adult intolerance would also prevent adults from consuming milk of other animals, then it's likely that the evolutionary advantage of protecting an infant's food source was greater than the advantage conferred by having the ability to consume any animals milk into adulthood.
So what changed to cause this to flip? Is it possible the domestication of cows, camels, goats, water buffalo, etc. provided a more reliable source of milk from other animals to make adult tolerance more advantageous? And/Or that religious belief provided moral prohibitions strong enough to protect infants (and their food source) in times of hunger to allow for lactose tolerance in adults to become more advantageous over the long term.